Let G be a region and suppose \(f_{n} : G \to \mathbf{C}\) is analytic for each \(n \ge 1\). Suppose \(\{f_{n}\}\) converges uniformly to a function \(f : G \to \mathbf{C}\). Then :
MH SET - 2023, SET Exam - 2023,
Answer: C
The limit is analytic, so in particular \(f'\) is analytic.
Weierstrass's theorem says that a uniform limit (indeed a locally uniform limit) of analytic functions on a region is analytic. One proof: for any closed triangle in G, \(\oint f = \lim \oint f_{n} = 0\), and \(f\) is continuous, so Morera's theorem gives analyticity. The derivative of an analytic function is again analytic, and in fact \(f_{n}' \to f'\) locally uniformly.
So the options saying \(f\) is not differentiable, or differentiable but not analytic, are false, and 'f analytic but f' not analytic' is impossible because analytic functions are infinitely differentiable. This is a sharp contrast with real analysis, where a uniform limit of smooth functions can be nowhere differentiable.
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