The Union Executive Questions and Answers

Q: "The total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total number of members of the House of the People." Choose the correct answer with respect to this statement.

The correct answer is that it was inserted into Article 75 through Clause (1A) by the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003.The 91st Amendment capped the size of the Union Council of Ministers at 15% of the strength of the Lok Sabha through Article 75(1A), and made a similar limit for the states through Article 164(1A). It also tightened the anti-defection law.The other options cite unrelated articles: Article 57 deals with the re-election of the President, Article 61 with the President's impeachment and Article 83 with the duration of the Houses of Parliament.

Q: Which among the following Article speaks about impeachment of the President of India ?

The impeachment of the President is dealt with in Article 61.Article 61 sets out the procedure: a charge of violation of the Constitution may be brought by either House of Parliament after 14 days' notice signed by a quarter of its members, and must be passed by a two-thirds majority of the total membership of each House.Article 60 is the President's oath, Article 62 the time for holding elections to fill vacancies, and Article 63 creates the office of the Vice-President.

Q: As per Article 76 of the Indian Constitution, the President shall appoint a person to be Attorney General for India :

The Attorney General must be a person qualified to be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court.Article 76 requires the President to appoint as Attorney General a person qualified to be a Supreme Court judge. Under Article 124 that means a citizen who has been a High Court judge for five years, an advocate of a High Court for ten years, or a distinguished jurist in the President's opinion.Qualification for a High Court judge (Article 165) is the test for a state's Advocate General, not for the Attorney General. The seven-year advocate options are not the constitutional criterion.

Q: The Electoral College for the election of the President consists of :

The Electoral College consists of elected members of both houses of Parliament and elected members of State Assemblies.Under Article 54, the President is elected by the elected members of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the states, including the National Capital Territory of Delhi and Puducherry (added by the 70th Amendment). Voting is by proportional representation with the single transferable vote.Nominated members of Parliament and of the assemblies, and members of state Legislative Councils, do not vote. So options that include all members are wrong, and 'None of the above' is wrong too.

Q: Which of the following statements is/are not correct ?1. As per the provisions of the Constitution, the Council of Ministers is both collectively and individually responsible to the Lok Sabha.2. A censure motion must state the reason for its adoption.3. A no-confidence motion must set out the grounds on which it is based.4. If a no-confidence motion is passed by the Lok Sabha, the Council of Ministers is bound to resign.Select the correct answer using the code given below :

The key's answer is 3 only.Statement 3 is plainly not correct. Rule 198 of the Lok Sabha Rules does not require a no-confidence motion to state any grounds; it needs only the support of 50 members to be admitted. A censure motion, by contrast, must state the reasons for which it seeks to censure the government, so statement 2 is correct. Statement 4 is also correct: under Article 75(3) the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, so it must resign if a no-confidence motion is passed.Statement 1 is strictly inaccurate too, because the Constitution makes ministers collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha but individually responsible to the President, who appoints them on the Prime Minister's advice. No option offers '1 and 3', so the key chooses '3 only', the one option made up entirely of a statement that is not correct; every other option includes statement 2 or 4, which are correct.

Q: Which of the statements given below is correct ?

The correct statement is The Attorney General of India is entitled to all the privileges that are available to a Member of Parliament.Under Article 88 the Attorney General may speak in and take part in the proceedings of either House of Parliament, without a vote, and Article 105(4) gives the Attorney General the same powers, privileges and immunities as a Member of Parliament.The other statements are wrong. The Attorney General is not a member of the Cabinet; a separate Law Minister represents legal matters there. The Attorney General is appointed by the President under Article 76, not by the Chief Justice, and must be qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court, not merely of a High Court.

Q: Consider the following statements in connection with the Vice-President of India :1. The electoral college of the Vice-President consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament, but not of the state legislative assemblies.2. He can only be removed from office through impeachment on the grounds mentioned in the Constitution for his removal.3. Before entering upon his office, he makes an oath as mentioned in Schedule III of the Constitution.4. He appoints the Deputy Chairperson of the Upper House to act in his absence.5. He has a casting vote in case of a tie.Which of the above statements are correct ?

Statements 1 and 5 are correct, so the answer is 1 and 5 only.The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college of all members of both Houses of Parliament, elected and nominated, without the state assemblies. As ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha he has a casting vote in case of a tie, but no vote in the first instance.Statement 2 is wrong: he is removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by an effective majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha, not by impeachment, and no grounds are specified. Statement 3 is wrong: his oath is set out in Article 69, not in the Third Schedule. Statement 4 is wrong: the Deputy Chairman is elected by the Rajya Sabha from among its members.

Q: According to Dr. Ivor Jennings, who is referred to as the 'alternative prime minister' in the parliamentary system?

Jennings called the leader of the opposition the alternative prime minister.Sir Ivor Jennings, writing on British cabinet government, described the leader of the opposition as the alternative Prime Minister because he leads a shadow cabinet ready to take office if the government falls.The leader of the ruling party is normally the Prime Minister himself, while the President and the Chief Justice stand outside party politics and are not alternatives to the Prime Minister.

Q: The power of amnesty for Capital Punishment is vested with :

The power to pardon a death sentence is vested in the President.Under Article 72 of the Constitution the President may grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions, or suspend, remit or commute sentences, and this includes the power to pardon a sentence of death. The President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers.A Governor's power under Article 161 extends to offences against state laws, but does not include pardoning a death sentence. The Supreme Court and High Courts hear appeals and confirm sentences but have no power of clemency.

Q: Which of the following statements is not correct in relation to Ministers and Council of Ministers ?

The statement that is not correct is 'Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Parliament'.Under Article 75(2), Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President. Parliament's control is collective: under Article 75(3) the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the House of the People, which can remove it by a vote of no confidence.The other statements are correct: collective responsibility is Article 75(3), the President administers the oaths of office and secrecy under Article 75(4), and salaries and allowances are fixed by Parliament by law under Article 75(6).

11.

"The total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total number of members of the House of the People." Choose the correct answer with respect to this statement.

A.It was inserted into the Article 75 of the Indian Constitution through Clause (1A) by the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003.
B.It was inserted into the Article 57 of the Indian Constitution through Clause (3C) by the 83rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 2000.
C.It was inserted into the Article 61 of the Indian Constitution through Clause (2D) by the 93rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 2005.
D.It was inserted into the Article 83 of the Indian Constitution through Clause (1B) by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976.

Exam Year(s)

KPSC KAS - 2020,

Answer: A

The correct answer is that it was inserted into Article 75 through Clause (1A) by the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003.

The 91st Amendment capped the size of the Union Council of Ministers at 15% of the strength of the Lok Sabha through Article 75(1A), and made a similar limit for the states through Article 164(1A). It also tightened the anti-defection law.

The other options cite unrelated articles: Article 57 deals with the re-election of the President, Article 61 with the President's impeachment and Article 83 with the duration of the Houses of Parliament.

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12.

Which among the following Article speaks about impeachment of the President of India ?

A.Article 63
B.Article 62
C.Article 61
D.Article 60

Exam Year(s)

MPPSC State Service - 2024, MPPSC Forest Service - 2024,

Answer: C

The impeachment of the President is dealt with in Article 61.

Article 61 sets out the procedure: a charge of violation of the Constitution may be brought by either House of Parliament after 14 days' notice signed by a quarter of its members, and must be passed by a two-thirds majority of the total membership of each House.

Article 60 is the President's oath, Article 62 the time for holding elections to fill vacancies, and Article 63 creates the office of the Vice-President.

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13.

As per Article 76 of the Indian Constitution, the President shall appoint a person to be Attorney General for India :

A.who is qualified to be appointed a Judge of the High Court.
B.who has been an advocate of the Supreme Court for at least seven years.
C.who is qualified to be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court.
D.who has been an advocate of the High Court for at least seven years.

Exam Year(s)

MPPSC State Service - 2024, MPPSC Forest Service - 2024,

Answer: C

The Attorney General must be a person qualified to be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court.

Article 76 requires the President to appoint as Attorney General a person qualified to be a Supreme Court judge. Under Article 124 that means a citizen who has been a High Court judge for five years, an advocate of a High Court for ten years, or a distinguished jurist in the President's opinion.

Qualification for a High Court judge (Article 165) is the test for a state's Advocate General, not for the Attorney General. The seven-year advocate options are not the constitutional criterion.

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14.

The Electoral College for the election of the President consists of :

A.Members of both houses of Parliament
B.Members of both houses of Parliament and State Assemblies
C.Elected members of both houses of Parliament and elected members of State Assemblies
D.None of the above

Exam Year(s)

MPPSC State Service - 2023, MPPSC Forest Service - 2023,

Answer: C

The Electoral College consists of elected members of both houses of Parliament and elected members of State Assemblies.

Under Article 54, the President is elected by the elected members of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the states, including the National Capital Territory of Delhi and Puducherry (added by the 70th Amendment). Voting is by proportional representation with the single transferable vote.

Nominated members of Parliament and of the assemblies, and members of state Legislative Councils, do not vote. So options that include all members are wrong, and 'None of the above' is wrong too.

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15.

Which of the following statements is/are not correct ?

1. As per the provisions of the Constitution, the Council of Ministers is both collectively and individually responsible to the Lok Sabha.
2. A censure motion must state the reason for its adoption.
3. A no-confidence motion must set out the grounds on which it is based.
4. If a no-confidence motion is passed by the Lok Sabha, the Council of Ministers is bound to resign.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

A.1, 2 and 4 only
B.2 only
C.3 only
D.2, 3 and 4 only

Exam Year(s)

Punjab Civil Service - 2018,

Answer: C

The key's answer is 3 only.

Statement 3 is plainly not correct. Rule 198 of the Lok Sabha Rules does not require a no-confidence motion to state any grounds; it needs only the support of 50 members to be admitted. A censure motion, by contrast, must state the reasons for which it seeks to censure the government, so statement 2 is correct. Statement 4 is also correct: under Article 75(3) the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, so it must resign if a no-confidence motion is passed.

Statement 1 is strictly inaccurate too, because the Constitution makes ministers collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha but individually responsible to the President, who appoints them on the Prime Minister's advice. No option offers '1 and 3', so the key chooses '3 only', the one option made up entirely of a statement that is not correct; every other option includes statement 2 or 4, which are correct.

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16.

Which of the statements given below is correct ?

A.The Attorney General of India is entitled to all the privileges that are available to a Member of Parliament.
B.The Attorney General of India is a member of the Cabinet.
C.The Attorney General of India is appointed by the Chief Justice of India.
D.He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed as Judge of a High Court.

Exam Year(s)

Punjab Civil Service - 2021,

Answer: A

The correct statement is The Attorney General of India is entitled to all the privileges that are available to a Member of Parliament.

Under Article 88 the Attorney General may speak in and take part in the proceedings of either House of Parliament, without a vote, and Article 105(4) gives the Attorney General the same powers, privileges and immunities as a Member of Parliament.

The other statements are wrong. The Attorney General is not a member of the Cabinet; a separate Law Minister represents legal matters there. The Attorney General is appointed by the President under Article 76, not by the Chief Justice, and must be qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court, not merely of a High Court.

Discuss in Forum

17.

Consider the following statements in connection with the Vice-President of India :

1. The electoral college of the Vice-President consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament, but not of the state legislative assemblies.
2. He can only be removed from office through impeachment on the grounds mentioned in the Constitution for his removal.
3. Before entering upon his office, he makes an oath as mentioned in Schedule III of the Constitution.
4. He appoints the Deputy Chairperson of the Upper House to act in his absence.
5. He has a casting vote in case of a tie.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

A.1, 3 and 5 only
B.1 and 5 only
C.2, 3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4 only

Exam Year(s)

Punjab Civil Service - 2025,

Answer: B

Statements 1 and 5 are correct, so the answer is 1 and 5 only.

The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college of all members of both Houses of Parliament, elected and nominated, without the state assemblies. As ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha he has a casting vote in case of a tie, but no vote in the first instance.

Statement 2 is wrong: he is removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by an effective majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha, not by impeachment, and no grounds are specified. Statement 3 is wrong: his oath is set out in Article 69, not in the Third Schedule. Statement 4 is wrong: the Deputy Chairman is elected by the Rajya Sabha from among its members.

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18.

According to Dr. Ivor Jennings, who is referred to as the 'alternative prime minister' in the parliamentary system?

A.The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
B.The President of the country
C.The leader of the ruling political party
D.The leader of the opposition

Exam Year(s)

Punjab Civil Service - 2024,

Answer: D

Jennings called the leader of the opposition the alternative prime minister.

Sir Ivor Jennings, writing on British cabinet government, described the leader of the opposition as the alternative Prime Minister because he leads a shadow cabinet ready to take office if the government falls.

The leader of the ruling party is normally the Prime Minister himself, while the President and the Chief Justice stand outside party politics and are not alternatives to the Prime Minister.

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19.

The power of amnesty for Capital Punishment is vested with :

A.Supreme Court
B.High Court
C.The Governor
D.The President

Exam Year(s)

MH SET - 2018, SET Exam - 2018,

Answer: D

The power to pardon a death sentence is vested in the President.

Under Article 72 of the Constitution the President may grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions, or suspend, remit or commute sentences, and this includes the power to pardon a sentence of death. The President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

A Governor's power under Article 161 extends to offences against state laws, but does not include pardoning a death sentence. The Supreme Court and High Courts hear appeals and confirm sentences but have no power of clemency.

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20.

Which of the following statements is not correct in relation to Ministers and Council of Ministers ?

A.Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Parliament
B.The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of People
C.Before the Minister enters upon his office, the President shall administer him the oaths of office
D.The salaries and allowances of Ministers shall be such as Parliament may by law determine

Exam Year(s)

MH SET - 2018, SET Exam - 2018,

Answer: A

The statement that is not correct is 'Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Parliament'.

Under Article 75(2), Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President. Parliament's control is collective: under Article 75(3) the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the House of the People, which can remove it by a vote of no confidence.

The other statements are correct: collective responsibility is Article 75(3), the President administers the oaths of office and secrecy under Article 75(4), and salaries and allowances are fixed by Parliament by law under Article 75(6).

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The Union Executive Questions and Answers

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