Psychological Testing Questions and Answers

Q: How many scales are there in Form I and Form II of Luria Nebraska neurological battery, respectively :

Form I has 11 scales and Form II 12, so the answer is 11 & 12.The Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery Form I has 11 clinical scales: Motor, Rhythm, Tactile, Visual, Receptive Speech, Expressive Speech, Writing, Reading, Arithmetic, Memory and Intellectual Processes. Form II adds a twelfth clinical scale, Intermediate Memory.The other pairs do not match this structure; in particular the forms do not have equal numbers of clinical scales, since Form II has the extra memory scale.

111.

How many scales are there in Form I and Form II of Luria Nebraska neurological battery, respectively :

A.11 & 12
B.12 & 12
C.23 & 23
D.05 & 12

Exam Year(s)

MH SET - 2025, SET Exam - 2025,

Answer: A

Form I has 11 scales and Form II 12, so the answer is 11 & 12.

The Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery Form I has 11 clinical scales: Motor, Rhythm, Tactile, Visual, Receptive Speech, Expressive Speech, Writing, Reading, Arithmetic, Memory and Intellectual Processes. Form II adds a twelfth clinical scale, Intermediate Memory.

The other pairs do not match this structure; in particular the forms do not have equal numbers of clinical scales, since Form II has the extra memory scale.

Discuss in Forum

112.

A psychotic person would probably score the highest on which MMPI-2 scale ?

A.Depression
B.Hysteria
C.Schizophrenia
D.Mania

Exam Year(s)

UGC NET - 2012,

Answer: C

On the MMPI-2 the clinical scale which is related to psychotic thinking is Schizophrenia (Sc), and psychotic persons are likely to have their highest score on it. Depression, Hysteria and Mania are neurotic or affective scales: they measure depressive symptoms, conversion symptoms and overactivity. The scale was built by contrasting the answers of clinical groups with those of normal people, and the Sc scale picks up odd thoughts, social alienation and unusual beliefs, which are typical of psychotic disorders. The answer is schizophrenia.

Discuss in Forum

113.

For an intelligence test, while computing item-remainder correlations for item analysis, we compute

A.Phi-coefficient
B.Spearman rho
C.Tetrachoric correlation
D.Point-biserial correlation

Exam Year(s)

UGC NET - 2012,

Answer: D

In item analysis the item-remainder correlation is the correlation between a dichotomous item score (right or wrong) and the continuous score on the rest of the test, and the point-biserial coefficient is the one used for a true dichotomy and a continuous variable. The phi coefficient is for two true dichotomies, the tetrachoric is for two artificial dichotomies of normal variables, and Spearman rho is for two sets of ranks. For example, an item scored 1 or 0 is correlated with the total of all the other items, and a high value shows that the item measures what the rest of the test measures. The answer is the point-biserial correlation.

Discuss in Forum

114.

Which of the following tests are considered to be culture-fair tests of intelligence ?

1. Cattell's Culture-Fair Test of Intelligence
2. Raven's Progressive Matrices
3. Wechsler's Intelligence Scale for Children
4. Goodenough-Harris Test
Codes :

A.1 only
B.1 and 2 only
C.1, 2 and 3 only
D.1, 2 and 4 only

Exam Year(s)

UGC NET - 2012,

Answer: D

Culture-fair tests try to reduce the influence of language and cultural experience. Cattell's Culture-Fair Intelligence Test, Raven's Progressive Matrices and the Goodenough-Harris drawing test use non-verbal figures, so they are accepted as culture-fair. The Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children depends heavily on language and general knowledge, so it is not. The answer is 1, 2 and 4 only.

Discuss in Forum

115.

Which of the following personality tests are considered to be the projective in nature ?

1. Thematic Apperception Test
2. Kent-Rosenoff Word Association Test
3. NEO Five-Factor Inventory
4. Rotter's Incomplete Sentence Blank

A.1 only
B.1 and 2 only
C.1, 2 and 4 only
D.2, 3 and 4 only

Exam Year(s)

UGC NET - 2012,

Answer: C

Projective tests present ambiguous stimuli to which the person responds with his own motives. The Thematic Apperception Test, the Kent-Rosanoff word association test and Rotter's incomplete sentence blank are all projective, so statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. The NEO Five-Factor Inventory is a self-report questionnaire of objective type. The Thematic Apperception Test of Murray uses pictures that call for stories, and the sentence completion and word association methods use words as cues. The answer is 1, 2 and 4 only.

Discuss in Forum

116.

Read each of the following two statements : Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and indicate your answer using the codes given below :

Assertion (A) : Projective testing would be of the greatest interest to psychodynamic personality psychologist.
Reason (R) : Projective testing is designed to uncover unconscious thoughts, feelings, and conflicts.
Codes :

A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B.Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C.(A) is true, but (R) is false.
D.(A) is false, but (R) is true.

Exam Year(s)

UGC NET - 2012,

Answer: A

Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explains (A). Projective tests such as the Rorschach and TAT use ambiguous stimuli so that the person projects unconscious thoughts, feelings and conflicts, and these are the central concerns of the psychodynamic personality psychologist.

That is why the psychodynamic view is most interested in them. The options calling either statement false, or saying that the reason is not the explanation, do not fit this link.

Discuss in Forum

117.

Read each of the following two statements - Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and indicate your answer using the codes below :

Assertion (A) : In Edwards Personal Preference Schedule (EPPS), forced choice format is used.
Reason (R) : Forced choice format reduces acquiescence response set.

A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B.Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C.(A) is true but (R) is false.
D.(A) is false but (R) is true.

Exam Year(s)

UGC NET - 2012,

Answer: C

The assertion is true and the reason is false. The Edwards Personal Preference Schedule does use a forced choice format, in which the person must choose between two statements matched for social desirability. The reason claims that this format reduces the acquiescence response set, and the key treats this as false, because the purpose of the matching and forced choice of the EPPS is to control social desirability and not acquiescence. So option C is correct. Options A and B need a true reason and D needs a false assertion.

Discuss in Forum

118.

Speed and power tests can be distinguished on the basis of :

1. Time limit
2. Difficulty level
3. Verbal/Non-verbal content

A.1 and 2
B.1 and 3
C.2 and 3
D.1, 2 and 3

Exam Year(s)

UGC NET - 2012,

Answer: A

Speed tests and power tests are told apart by the time limit and the difficulty level of the items. A speed test has easy items with a strict time limit, so scores depend on how many are done in time, while a power test has items of increasing difficulty and a generous time limit so that scores depend on the level reached. Verbal or non-verbal content does not distinguish them, because both kinds of test can use either, so only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Discuss in Forum

119.

A test of Abstract Thinking had the norms in terms of normalized T scores (Mean = 50, SD = 10). If the subject received a T score of 60, what would be his percentile rank ?

A.16
B.60
C.66
D.84

Exam Year(s)

UGC NET - 2012,

Answer: D

A T score has a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 10, so a T score of 60 is one standard deviation above the mean.\[ z = \frac{60 - 50}{10} = 1 \]In a normal distribution about 84 percent of the scores lie below z = +1, so the percentile rank is about 84. The value 16 is the rank for z = -1, and 60 and 66 do not correspond to a z score of 1. A quick check: in the normal curve about 68 percent of scores fall within one standard deviation of the mean, which leaves about 16 percent above +1 SD, so the person is at about the 84th percentile.

Discuss in Forum

120.

Some steps in test construction are listed below :

1. Internal consistency assessment
2. Item analysis
3. Test-retest reliability
4. Item writing

Usually, the above steps are carried out in the following sequence.

A.4, 2, 1, 3
B.4, 1, 3, 2
C.2, 4, 1, 3
D.4, 3, 2, 1

Exam Year(s)

UGC NET - 2012,

Answer: A

The usual sequence in test construction is: item writing (4), item analysis (2) on the tried-out items, then the assessment of internal consistency (1), and finally test-retest reliability (3) on the final form. The code is 4, 2, 1, 3. The other options place the reliability checks before item analysis, or item analysis before item writing, which cannot be done since there are no items to analyse. Reliability can be examined only after the items have been written and the weak ones removed by item analysis, which is why the reliability steps come last.

Psychological Testing Questions and Answers

Topics

Other Subjects

Tags: Psychological Testing Questions and Answers

About Us

Psychological Testing Questions and Answers

Topics

Other Subjects

Tags: Psychological Testing Questions and Answers

About Us

Stay informed about all important Dates & Notifications