Match Column-I with Column-II by using the codes given below :Column-I (Types of Norms)Column-II (Features)(P) Age Norms(1) Scores are expressed in SD units(Q) Percentile Norms(2) Sequential formation of concepts and motor skills(R) Ordinal Norms(3) Mental development(S) Standard Score Norms(4) Unequal units of measurement

The correct match is P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1.Age norms express performance in terms of mental development, the age at which a score is typical.Percentile norms have unequal units of measurement: differences near the middle of the distribution are exaggerated compared with those at the extremes.Ordinal norms place a child in a sequence of developmental stages, the sequential formation of concepts and motor skills.Standard score norms express scores in SD units from the mean.The other options put standard scores or percentiles against the wrong feature.

Psychological Testing Questions and Answers

Q: Which of the following test is most similar to Rorschach ?

The test most similar to the Rorschach is the TAT.Both the Rorschach Inkblot Test and the Thematic Apperception Test are projective tests: they present ambiguous stimuli (inkblots, or pictures of people in unclear situations) and interpret the person's responses as projections of personality, needs and conflicts.The 16PF and the MMPI are objective self-report personality inventories, and the TMAS (Taylor Manifest Anxiety Scale) is a self-report questionnaire. They use structured items rather than ambiguous stimuli.

Q: The cultural test bias hypothesis states :

The cultural test bias hypothesis states that group differences reflect artifacts of the test.The hypothesis, discussed at length by Cecil Reynolds, holds that differences in mean scores between cultural or ethnic groups on mental tests arise from the tests themselves: items, content or procedures that favour one group's culture. The differences are therefore an artifact of measurement, not real differences in ability.Saying that differences come from real differences in culture, or from conditions such as poverty, locates the cause outside the test, which is the opposite of the hypothesis. Testing an entire culture is not part of it.

Q: A psychologist who claims that Test X can predict a behaviour with 100% accuracy, most likely is breaking the ethical principle of :

The psychologist is breaking the principle of integrity.The APA's ethical principle of integrity requires psychologists to promote accuracy, honesty and truthfulness and not to make false or misleading statements. No psychological test predicts behaviour with 100 per cent accuracy, since every test has measurement error and imperfect validity, so such a claim misrepresents the test.Competence concerns working only within the limits of one's training. Respect for privacy concerns confidentiality. Concern for others' welfare concerns protecting the people psychologists work with. The false claim about accuracy is first of all a breach of honesty.

Q: Which of the following are the ethical practice(s) observed while using psychological tests ?(1) Maintaining the test results confidential.(2) Obtaining informed consent from participants.(3) Communicating test results to adults only.Codes :

The ethical practices are (1) and (2).Ethical codes for testing require psychologists to keep test results confidential, releasing them only to people with a legitimate right to them (1), and to obtain informed consent from test takers, explaining the purpose, nature and use of the testing before it begins (2).Statement (3) is not an ethical principle. Test takers, including adolescents and children in a suitable form, have a right to feedback on their results, and the rule is to communicate results in a way the person can understand, not to tell adults only. So the options including (3) are wrong.

Q: Popular responses on the Rorschach are always :

Popular responses on the Rorschach are always F+ responses.A popular response is one given very frequently by people in general to a particular card, such as a bat or butterfly to Card V. Because such percepts fit the shape of the blot well and are commonly seen, they are by definition good-form (F+) responses.They cannot be infrequent, since frequency is what makes them popular. Space responses use the white areas of the card, which popular responses usually do not. F− responses are poor-form percepts that do not fit the blot, the opposite of populars.

Q: Which of the following indices are associated with General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB) ?(I) Cognitive(II) Behavioural(III) Perceptual(IV) Achievement potential.

The GATB indices among those listed are (I) and (III), cognitive and perceptual.The General Aptitude Test Battery of the US Employment Service measures nine aptitudes, which are grouped for job matching into three composites: a cognitive composite (general learning ability, verbal and numerical aptitude), a perceptual composite (spatial aptitude, form perception and clerical perception) and a psychomotor composite (motor coordination, finger and manual dexterity).There is no behavioural index in the battery, and 'achievement potential' is not one of its composites, so every option including (II) or (IV) is wrong.

Q: Item bias in the test can be studied by comparing :(I) Item difficulty level across different groups with different backgrounds.(II) Average performance of two groups on overall test.

Item bias is studied by comparing (I) only, item difficulty across groups.An item is biased when people from different groups who have the same level of the ability being measured have different chances of answering it correctly. Methods of detecting differential item functioning (DIF) such as Mantel-Haenszel and item response theory compare an item's difficulty or response curve across groups after matching on total score.A difference in the two groups' average performance on the whole test (II) cannot show bias by itself, because the groups may genuinely differ in the ability. That is why 'Both' and '(II) only' are wrong, and 'Neither' ignores the standard method.

Q: To increase the overall difficulty level of the test which of the following items could be added in the test on the priority basis ?

The item to add first is the one with P = 0.12.The difficulty index P of an item is the proportion of test takers who answer it correctly, so the lower the P value, the harder the item. An item answered correctly by only 12 per cent of examinees is the hardest of the four and does most to raise the overall difficulty of the test.P = 0.20 is the next hardest, P = 0.45 is of moderate difficulty, and P = 0.87 is an easy item that would make the test easier. The common mistake is reading P as a difficulty score where higher means harder.

Q: Which of the following is/are source/s of error variation in the test-retest reliability study ?(I) Temporal stability(II) Content of the test(III) Individual variation(IV) Test administrator

On the official key the answer is (I) only: temporal stability.Test-retest reliability gives the same test twice to the same group and correlates the two sets of scores. Because the items are identical, the test's content cannot contribute error, and what is left is change over the interval: the standard textbook classification (Anastasi, Kaplan and Saccuzzo) names this error source time sampling, the stability of scores over time.Content of the test (II) is the error source of alternate-form and split-half reliability, where different items are compared, which is why options B and C fail. Individual variation and the test administrator (III, IV) are general sources of error in any testing, not the source that defines test-retest.What could not be confirmed: some texts also treat fluctuations in the testing session as error in a retest, so the word 'only' rests on the textbook classification by type of reliability.

31.

Match Column-I with Column-II by using the codes given below :

Column-I (Types of Norms)	Column-II (Features)
(P) Age Norms	(1) Scores are expressed in SD units
(Q) Percentile Norms	(2) Sequential formation of concepts and motor skills
(R) Ordinal Norms	(3) Mental development
(S) Standard Score Norms	(4) Unequal units of measurement

A.P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
B.P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
C.P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
D.P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

Exam Year(s)

MH SET - 2018, SET Exam - 2018,

Answer: A

The correct match is P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1.

Age norms express performance in terms of mental development, the age at which a score is typical.
Percentile norms have unequal units of measurement: differences near the middle of the distribution are exaggerated compared with those at the extremes.
Ordinal norms place a child in a sequence of developmental stages, the sequential formation of concepts and motor skills.
Standard score norms express scores in SD units from the mean.

The other options put standard scores or percentiles against the wrong feature.

Discuss in Forum

32.

Which of the following test is most similar to Rorschach ?

A.TAT
B.16 PF
C.TMAS
D.MMPI

Exam Year(s)

MH SET - 2018, SET Exam - 2018,

Answer: A

The test most similar to the Rorschach is the TAT.

Both the Rorschach Inkblot Test and the Thematic Apperception Test are projective tests: they present ambiguous stimuli (inkblots, or pictures of people in unclear situations) and interpret the person's responses as projections of personality, needs and conflicts.

The 16PF and the MMPI are objective self-report personality inventories, and the TMAS (Taylor Manifest Anxiety Scale) is a self-report questionnaire. They use structured items rather than ambiguous stimuli.

Discuss in Forum

33.

The cultural test bias hypothesis states :

A.group differences reflect artifacts of the test
B.difference in performance is due to differences in culture
C.the bias resides in cultural aspects like poverty
D.we need to test the entire culture to assess bias

Exam Year(s)

MH SET - 2018, SET Exam - 2018,

Answer: A

The cultural test bias hypothesis states that group differences reflect artifacts of the test.

The hypothesis, discussed at length by Cecil Reynolds, holds that differences in mean scores between cultural or ethnic groups on mental tests arise from the tests themselves: items, content or procedures that favour one group's culture. The differences are therefore an artifact of measurement, not real differences in ability.

Saying that differences come from real differences in culture, or from conditions such as poverty, locates the cause outside the test, which is the opposite of the hypothesis. Testing an entire culture is not part of it.

Discuss in Forum

34.

A psychologist who claims that Test X can predict a behaviour with 100% accuracy, most likely is breaking the ethical principle of :

A.competence
B.integrity
C.respect of privacy
D.concern for others' welfare

Exam Year(s)

MH SET - 2018, SET Exam - 2018,

Answer: B

The psychologist is breaking the principle of integrity.

The APA's ethical principle of integrity requires psychologists to promote accuracy, honesty and truthfulness and not to make false or misleading statements. No psychological test predicts behaviour with 100 per cent accuracy, since every test has measurement error and imperfect validity, so such a claim misrepresents the test.

Competence concerns working only within the limits of one's training. Respect for privacy concerns confidentiality. Concern for others' welfare concerns protecting the people psychologists work with. The false claim about accuracy is first of all a breach of honesty.

Discuss in Forum

35.

Which of the following are the ethical practice(s) observed while using psychological tests ?

(1) Maintaining the test results confidential.
(2) Obtaining informed consent from participants.
(3) Communicating test results to adults only.

Codes :

A.(1) only
B.(2) only
C.(1) and (2)
D.(2) and (3)

Exam Year(s)

MH SET - 2018, SET Exam - 2018,

Answer: C

The ethical practices are (1) and (2).

Ethical codes for testing require psychologists to keep test results confidential, releasing them only to people with a legitimate right to them (1), and to obtain informed consent from test takers, explaining the purpose, nature and use of the testing before it begins (2).

Statement (3) is not an ethical principle. Test takers, including adolescents and children in a suitable form, have a right to feedback on their results, and the rule is to communicate results in a way the person can understand, not to tell adults only. So the options including (3) are wrong.

Discuss in Forum

36.

Popular responses on the Rorschach are always :

A.Infrequent
B.Space responses
C.F+ responses
D.F− responses

Exam Year(s)

MH SET - 2018, SET Exam - 2018,

Answer: C

Popular responses on the Rorschach are always F+ responses.

A popular response is one given very frequently by people in general to a particular card, such as a bat or butterfly to Card V. Because such percepts fit the shape of the blot well and are commonly seen, they are by definition good-form (F+) responses.

They cannot be infrequent, since frequency is what makes them popular. Space responses use the white areas of the card, which popular responses usually do not. F− responses are poor-form percepts that do not fit the blot, the opposite of populars.

Discuss in Forum

37.

Which of the following indices are associated with General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB) ?

(I) Cognitive
(II) Behavioural
(III) Perceptual
(IV) Achievement potential.

A.(I) and (II)
B.(II) and (IV)
C.(I) and (III)
D.(I) and (IV)

Exam Year(s)

MH SET - 2019, SET Exam - 2019,

Answer: C

The GATB indices among those listed are (I) and (III), cognitive and perceptual.

The General Aptitude Test Battery of the US Employment Service measures nine aptitudes, which are grouped for job matching into three composites: a cognitive composite (general learning ability, verbal and numerical aptitude), a perceptual composite (spatial aptitude, form perception and clerical perception) and a psychomotor composite (motor coordination, finger and manual dexterity).

There is no behavioural index in the battery, and 'achievement potential' is not one of its composites, so every option including (II) or (IV) is wrong.

Discuss in Forum

38.

Item bias in the test can be studied by comparing :

(I) Item difficulty level across different groups with different backgrounds.
(II) Average performance of two groups on overall test.

A.(I) only
B.(II) only
C.Both (I) and (II)
D.Neither (I) nor (II)

Exam Year(s)

MH SET - 2019, SET Exam - 2019,

Answer: A

Item bias is studied by comparing (I) only, item difficulty across groups.

An item is biased when people from different groups who have the same level of the ability being measured have different chances of answering it correctly. Methods of detecting differential item functioning (DIF) such as Mantel-Haenszel and item response theory compare an item's difficulty or response curve across groups after matching on total score.

A difference in the two groups' average performance on the whole test (II) cannot show bias by itself, because the groups may genuinely differ in the ability. That is why 'Both' and '(II) only' are wrong, and 'Neither' ignores the standard method.

Discuss in Forum

39.

To increase the overall difficulty level of the test which of the following items could be added in the test on the priority basis ?

A.An item with P = 0.12
B.An item with P = 0.45
C.An item with P = 0.20
D.An item with P = 0.87

Exam Year(s)

MH SET - 2019, SET Exam - 2019,

Answer: A

The item to add first is the one with P = 0.12.

The difficulty index P of an item is the proportion of test takers who answer it correctly, so the lower the P value, the harder the item. An item answered correctly by only 12 per cent of examinees is the hardest of the four and does most to raise the overall difficulty of the test.

P = 0.20 is the next hardest, P = 0.45 is of moderate difficulty, and P = 0.87 is an easy item that would make the test easier. The common mistake is reading P as a difficulty score where higher means harder.

Discuss in Forum

40.

Which of the following is/are source/s of error variation in the test-retest reliability study ?

(I) Temporal stability
(II) Content of the test
(III) Individual variation
(IV) Test administrator

A.(I) only
B.(II) only
C.(I) and (II) only
D.(III) and (IV) only

Exam Year(s)

MH SET - 2019, SET Exam - 2019,

Answer: A

On the official key the answer is (I) only: temporal stability.

Test-retest reliability gives the same test twice to the same group and correlates the two sets of scores. Because the items are identical, the test's content cannot contribute error, and what is left is change over the interval: the standard textbook classification (Anastasi, Kaplan and Saccuzzo) names this error source time sampling, the stability of scores over time.

Content of the test (II) is the error source of alternate-form and split-half reliability, where different items are compared, which is why options B and C fail. Individual variation and the test administrator (III, IV) are general sources of error in any testing, not the source that defines test-retest.

What could not be confirmed: some texts also treat fluctuations in the testing session as error in a retest, so the word 'only' rests on the textbook classification by type of reliability.

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